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Biotechnology Principles and Processes: NEET MCQ Questions [100+ Solved]

Below are the NEET MCQ questions on Class 12 Biology Chapter “Biotechnology Principles and Processes” based on the NCERT textbook. Solve the below free NEET mock test for a better understanding of the various topics. 100+ important MCQs (multiple choice questions) are given in this NEET question bank.

“Biotechnology Principles and Processes” is the 11th chapter in the unit “Biotechnology” of class XII or class 12th Biology NCERT. Do note that NEET (which is conducted by NTA) is based on NCERT textbooks so they are a must-have. You can also download PDFs of NCERT textbooks.

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  1. Who discovered the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) technology?
    (a) Karry Mullis
    (b) Saiki et al
    (c) Craig Venter
    (d) Maxam and Gilbert

(a) Karry Mullis

  1. How many DNA molecules are formed from a DNA template molecule after 4 PCR cycles?
    (a) 4
    (b) 32
    (c) 16
    (d) 8

(c) 16

  1. The Human Genome Project (HGP) is closely tied to the rapid development of a new area of biology called?
    (a) Biotechnology
    (b) Bioinformatics
    (c) Biogeography
    (d) Bioscience

(b) Bioinformatics

  1. How can genes of interest be selected from a genomic library?
    (a) Restriction enzymes
    (b) Cloning vectors
    (c) DNA probes
    (d) Gene targets

(c) DNA probes

  1. Which of the following statements about cloning vectors is false?
    (a) ‘Ori’ is a sequence responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA
    (b) Selectable marker selectively permitting the growth of the non-transformants
    (c) To link the alien DNA, the vector needs to have a single recognition site for the commonly used restriction enzymes
    (d) The ligation of alien DNA is carried out at a restriction site present in one of the two antibiotic resistance genes

(b) Selectable marker selectively permitting the growth of the non-transformants

  1. What is a genetic clone?
    (a) a plant produced by asexual means
    (b) a hybrid produced by sexual means
    (c) a homozygous plant produced by sexual means
    (d) a heterozygous plant produced by sexual means

(a) a plant produced by asexual means

  1. What is the PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) method used for?
    (a) amplification of DNA for forming billions of copies of itself
    (b) monoclonal antibody production
    (c) hybridoma production
    (d) All of the above

(a) amplification of DNA for forming billions of copies of itself

  1. In genetic engineering, which structure is involved?
    (a) Plastid
    (b) Plasmid
    (c) Codon
    (d) None of these

(b) Plasmid

  1. What does genetic engineering aim to achieve?
    (a) destroying wild gene
    (b) preserving defective gene
    (c) curing human disease by introducing a new gene (Haemophilia)
    (d) all the above

(c) curing human disease by introducing a new gene (Haemophilia)

  1. Ti-plasmid used in genetic engineering was modified by?
    (a) adding tumour forming genes
    (b) deleting tumour forming genes
    (c) adding genes for endonucleases
    (d) deleting genes for endonucleases

(b) deleting tumour forming genes

  1. What technique is used for separating DNA fragments?
    (a) Gel electrophoresis
    (b) Chromatography
    (c) Transformation
    (d) Transduction

(a) Gel electrophoresis

  1. What does the electroporation procedure involve?
    (a) fast passage of food through sieve pores in phloem elements with the help of electric stimulation
    (b) opening of stomatal pores during the night by artificial light
    (c) making transient pores in the cell membrane to introduce gene constructs
    (d) purification of saline water with the help of a membrane system

(c) making transient pores in the cell membrane to introduce gene constructs

  1. In the Southern blot technique, what is the first step?
    (a) Denaturation of DNA on the gel for hybridization with a specific probe
    (b) Production of a group of genetically identical cells
    (c) Digestion of DNA by a restriction enzyme
    (d) Denaturation of DNA from a nucleated cell such as the one from the scene of a crime

(c) Digestion of DNA by a restriction enzyme

  1. What is a tool of recombinant DNA technology?
    (a) Cloning vectors
    (b) Ligase enzymes
    (c) Restriction enzymes
    (d) All of the above

(d) All of the above

  1. Which of these is incorrectly matched?
    (a) Gene gun—biolistic gun
    (b) Plasmids—extrachromosomal DNA
    (c) DNA ligase—Biological scissors
    (d) Bacteriophages—viruses

(c) DNA ligase—Biological scissors

  1. Sugar is converted into alcohol during fermentation due to the direct action of?
    (a) temperature
    (b) micro-organisms
    (c) concentration of sugar solution
    (d) enzyme zymase

(d) enzyme zymase

  1. What is a single strand of nucleic acid tagged with a radioactive molecule called?
    (a) Vector
    (b) Selectablemarker
    (c) Plasmid
    (d) Probe

(d) Probe

  1. The microparticles coated with DNA to be bombarded with gene guns for transformation are composed of what?

(a) Silver or Platinum
(b) Platinum or Zinc
(c) Silicon or Platinum
(d) Gold or Tungsten

(d) Gold or Tungsten

  1. What is the purpose of the polyethylene glycol method?
    (a) biodiesel production
    (b) seedless fruit production
    (c) energy production from sewage
    (d) gene transfer without a vector

(d) gene transfer without a vector

  1. Which of the following is molecular scissors?
    (a) EcoRI
    (b) Hind III
    (c) Bam H II
    (d) All of these

(d) All of these

  1. In which DNA sequence does the restriction enzyme EcoRI always cleave the nitrogen sequence?

(a) AAGCTT
(b) GGATCC
(c) GAATTC
(d) TGGCCA

(c) GAATTC

  1. What is a genetically engineered bacteria used to clear oil spills?
    (a) Escherichia coli
    (b) Bacillus subtilis
    (c) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
    (d) Pseudomonas putida

(d) Pseudomonas putida

  1. Which of the following is associated with reporter genes?

(a) include genes for drug resistance
(b) include genes for bioluminescence
(c) include genes for DNA origins
(d) Both a and b

(d) Both a and b

  1. The rennin used in cheese industries is?
    (a) antibiotic
    (b) alkaloid
    (c) enzyme
    (d) inhibitor

(c) enzyme

  1. What are restriction endonucleases?

(a) enzymes that process pre-RNA’s
(b) enzymes that degrade DNA
(c) enzymes that protect bacterial cells from viral infection
(d) None of these

(c) enzymes that protect bacterial cells from viral infection

  1. The primary reason why the same basic techniques can be used to analyze the DNA from species as diverse as bacteria and humans is that?
    (a) all cells are identical
    (b) every organism has the same amount of DNA
    (c) the DNA sequences of all organisms are the same
    (d) DNA has a consistent structure in all organisms

(d) DNA has a consistent structure in all organisms

  1. In experiments involving DNA hybridization, which of the following is a critically important tool?
    (a) DNA sequencing machines
    (b) Ligases
    (c) DNA probes
    (d) Vectors

(c) DNA probes

  1. It is said that a gene has been cloned if?
    (a) the DNA sequence of the gene is known
    (b) the function of the gene is known
    (c) there is a DNA probe for the gene
    (d) the gene has been isolated and copied

(d) the gene has been isolated and copied

  1. What is a product of biotechnology?
    (a) transgenic crop (GM crop)
    (b) humulin
    (c) biofertilizer
    (d) All of these

(d) All of these

  1. A biologist must first isolate DNA from an affected person’s cells before studying the genetic basis of the inherited human disease sickle-cell anemia. The next step is to use
    (a) restriction enzymes that break the DNA into small pieces at known points
    (b) gel electrophoresis to separate the DNA from the other cell fragments.
    (c) ligases that make the DNA stick together
    (d) DNA polymerase to make new copies of the DNA

(a) restriction enzymes that break the DNA into small pieces at known points

  1. What enzyme joins the ends of two strands of nucleic acid?
    (a) polymerase
    (b) synthetase
    (c) helicase
    (d) ligase

(d) ligase

  1. Under what category does the introduction of a gene or genes into an organism that normally does not have them, or their deletion by artificial means (not through breeding) fall?
    (a) molecular biology
    (b) cytogenetics
    (c) genetic hybridization
    (d) genetic engineering

(d) genetic engineering

  1. What is the source of the Taq polymerase enzyme?
    (a) Thermus aquaticus
    (b) Thiobacillus ferroxidans
    (c) Bacillus subtilis
    (d) Pseudomonas putida

(a) Thermus aquaticus

  1. Which of the following enzymes is a restriction endonuclease?
    (a) Hind II
    (b) Protease
    (c) DNase I
    (d) RNase

(a) Hind II

  1. When separated on an agarose gel, DNA fragments can be visualized after staining with?
    (a) Acetocarmine
    (b) Aniline blue
    (c) Ethidium bromide
    (d) Bromophenol blue

(c) Ethidium bromide

  1. What is the process of separating and purifying expressed proteins before marketing called?
    (a) Downstream processing
    (b) Bioprocessing
    (c) Postproduction processing
    (d) Upstream processing

(a) Downstream processing

  1. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
    (a) Plasmid – Small piece of extrachromosomal DNA in bacteria
    (b) Interferon – An enzyme that interferes with DNA replication
    (c) Cosmid – A vector for carrying large DNA fragments into host cells
    (d) Myeloma – Antibody – producing tumour cells

(b) Interferon – An enzyme that interferes with DNA replication

  1. Gel electrophoresis is used to separate DNA fragments
    (a) because DNA is pulled through the gel toward the negative end of the field
    (b) because larger DNA fragments move faster through the gel than smaller DNA fragments
    (c) to identify and isolate DNA fragments
    (d) to synthesize DNA for cloning

(c) to identify and isolate DNA fragments

  1. What do vectors include?
    (a) bacterial and plant plasmids
    (b) viruses
    (c) artificial chromosomes
    (d) All of the above

(d) All of the above

  1. Why is complementary base pairing important?
    (a) ligation reactions with blunt-end DNA molecules
    (b) hybridization between DNA and transcription factors
    (c) restriction endonucleases to cut cell walls
    (d) synthesizing cDNA molecules from mRNA templates

(d) synthesizing cDNA molecules from mRNA templates

  1. For a prokaryotic vector to be propagated in a bacterial host cell, the vector needs?
    (a) telomeres
    (b) centromeres
    (c) drug-resistant genes
    (d) an origin of replication

(d) an origin of replication

  1. What has been designed with Bacillus thuringiensis strains (Bt)?
    (a) Biofertilizers
    (b) Bio-metallurgical techniques
    (c) Bio-mineralization processes
    (d) Bioinsecticidal plants

(d) Bioinsecticidal plants

  1. Animal cell culture technology is used today most extensively in the production of what?
    (a) edible proteins
    (b) insulin
    (c) interferons
    (d) vaccines

(d) vaccines

  1. What do vectors include?
    (a) bacterial and plant plasmids
    (b) viruses
    (c) artificial chromosomes
    (d) All of the above

(d) All of the above

  1. What does cloning means?
    (a) all of the cells are derived from one cell and are genetically identical
    (b) a gene from one organism has been inserted into a vector and successfully introduced into a host cell
    (c) all of the cells in a particular organism are identical
    (d) All of the above

(d) All of the above

  1. How can recombinant DNA be transferred into a host cell?
    (a) growing the host cell in a growth medium containing ampicillin
    (b) coating the DNA with carbohydrates so that the cells will engulf the DNA
    (c) treating cells with calcium ions or electrical pulses to increase cell permeability
    (d) injecting proteins into host cells to make them more permeable

(c) treating cells with calcium ions or electrical pulses to increase cell permeability

  1. What is a genetic marker?
    (a) a place where a restriction enzyme cuts DNA
    (b) a chart that traces the family history of a genetic trait
    (c) nucleotide sequence near a particular gene
    (d) radioactive probe used to find a gene

(c) nucleotide sequence near a particular gene

  1. Expression vectors differ from other vectors because?
    (a) contain drug resistance markers
    (b) contain telomeres
    (c) contain regulatory regions that permit the cloned DNA to produce a gene product
    (d) contain DNA origins

(c) contain regulatory regions that permit the cloned DNA to produce a gene product

  1. For what purpose have stirred tank bioreactors been designed?
    (a) addition of preservatives to the product
    (b) purification of the product
    (c) ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel
    (d) availability of oxygen throughout the process

(d) availability of oxygen throughout the process

  1. What is a genomic library?
    (a) where you look to find out how to make recombinant DNA.
    (b) a listing of the known nucleotide sequences for a particular species.
    (c) all the genes contained in one kind of cell.
    (d) a collection of cloned DNA pieces from an organism’s genome.

(d) a collection of cloned DNA pieces from an organism’s genome.

  1. What is the use of electrophoresis?
    (a) separate fragments of DNA.
    (b) clone genes.
    (c) cut DNA into fragments.
    (d) match a gene with its function.

(a) separate fragments of DNA.

  1. Which of the following is not necessary to execute a polymerase chain reaction successfully?
    (a) All four DNA bases
    (b) Short DNA base primers
    (c) DNA polymerase
    (d) DNA library

(d) DNA library

  1. Which of the following statements about restriction enzymes is incorrect?
    (a) They work on DNA extracted from all types of organisms
    (b) They are used to glue together short segments of DNA
    (c) They come in many varieties, each with its DNA target sequence
    (d) They are highly specific for their DNA target sequences

(b) They are used to glue together short segments of DNA

  1. DNA ligases are enzymes that are used to?
    (a) chop a large DNA molecule into small fragments
    (b) copy DNA fragments
    (c) insert the DNA from one species into the DNA of another species
    (d) separate DNA fragments based on their size

(c) insert the DNA from one species into the DNA of another species

  1. Suppose an electrical current has moved DNA fragments through a gel. What does the band on this gel that is furthest from the top (that is, from where the DNA fragments were added) represent?
    (a) shortest fragments of DNA
    (b) longest fragments of DNA
    (c) restriction enzyme used to cut the DNA into fragments
    (d) ligase used to bind the DNA fragments together

(a) shortest fragments of DNA

  1. Where was the first restriction endonuclease enzyme discovered?
    (a) PPLO
    (b) E. coli
    (c) Haemophilus influenzae
    (d) Bacteriophages

(c) Haemophilus influenzae

  1. To perform a genetic task, a biologist uses a polymerase chain reaction. What does the biologist probably want to accomplish?
    (a) discover new genes
    (b) clone a gene
    (c) cut DNA into many small fragments
    (d) isolate DNA from a living cell

(b) clone a gene

  1. Which of the following techniques can be used in genetic engineering to insert genes from one organism into another or back into the original organism?
    (a) Polymerase chain reaction
    (b) Gene gun
    (c) DNA hybridization
    (d) Gel electrophoresis

(b) Gene gun

  1. Paul Bery was the first to synthesize recombinant DNA molecules using DNA of?
    (a) TMV and Salmonella
    (b) Virus SB-40 and E.coli
    (c) Influenza virus and Diplococcus bacterium
    (d) TMV and Agrobacterium tumefaciens

(b) Virus SB-40 and E.coli

  1. PCR and Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism can be used for what?
    (a) Study of enzymes
    (b) Genetic transformation
    (c) DNA sequencing
    (d) Genetic Fingerprinting

(d) Genetic Fingerprinting

  1. Which of the following is a true statement about DNA polymerase that is used in PCR?
    (a) It is used to ligate introduced DNA in the recipient cell
    (b) It serves as a selectable marker
    (c) It is isolated from a virus
    (d) It remains active at high temperature

(d) It remains active at high temperature

  1. For what purposes should biolistics (gene-gun) be used?
    (a) DNA fingerprinting
    (b) Disarming pathogen vectors
    (c) Transformation of plant cells
    (d) Constructing recombinant DNA molecules

(d) Constructing recombinant DNA molecules

  1. Antibiotics are used in genetic engineering
    (a) as selectable markers
    (b) to select healthy vectors
    (c) to keep the cultures free of infection
    (d) as sequences from where replication starts

(a) as selectable markers

  1. Which of the following is the basis for DNA fingerprinting?
    (a) The relative proportions of purines and pyrimidines in DNA
    (b) Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated short DNA segments
    (c) The relative difference in the DNA occurrence in blood, skin and saliva
    (d) The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and grooves of the fingerprints

(b) Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated short DNA segments

  1. What was the first clinical gene therapy used to treat?
    (a) chickenpox
    (b) diabetes mellitus
    (c) rheumatoid arthritis
    (d) adenosine deaminase deficiency

(d) adenosine deaminase deficiency

  1. Why is it not desirable to introduce food plants developed by genetic engineering?
    (a) the economy of developing countries may suffer
    (b) these products are less tasty as compared to the already existing products
    (c) this method is costly
    (d) there is the danger of entry of viruses and toxins with introduced crop

(d) there is the danger of entry of viruses and toxins with introduced crop

  1. With what method became it possible to link the antibiotic resistance gene to the plasmid vector?
    (a) DNA ligase
    (b) Endonucleases
    (c) DNA polymerase
    (d) Exonucleases

(a) DNA ligase

  1. What are restriction endonucleases used for?
    (a) the molecular build-up at nucleotides
    (b) molecular degradation to DNA breakup
    (c) molecular knives for cutting DNA at specific sites
    (d) molecular cement to combine DNA sites

(c) molecular knives for cutting DNA at specific sites

  1. Which of the following is used in genetic engineering?
    (a) Plasmid
    (b) Plastid
    (c) Mitochondria
    (d) E.R.

(a) Plasmid

  1. What is the process of introducing a foreign gene to improve genotypes called?
    (a) tissue culture
    (b) vernalization
    (c) genetic engineering
    (d) eugenics

(c) genetic engineering

  1. What is an example of gene therapy?
    (a) the production of injectable hepatitis B vaccine
    (b) production of vaccines in food crops like potatoes which can be eaten
    (c) introduction of gene for adenosine deaminase in persons suffering from Severe Combined Immuno Deficiency (SCID)
    (d) production of test-tube babies by artificial insemination and implantation of fertilized eggs

(c) introduction of gene for adenosine deaminase in persons suffering from Severe Combined Immuno Deficiency (SCID)

  1. c-DNA probes are copied from messenger RNA molecules using?
    (a) restriction enzymes
    (b) reverse transcriptase
    (c) DNA polymerase
    (d) adenosine deaminase

(b) reverse transcriptase

  1. What does the enzyme, restriction endonucleases do?
    (a) make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule
    (b) recognize a specific nucleotide sequence for binding of DNA ligase
    (c) restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase
    (d) remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA molecule

(a) make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule

  1. EcoRI is a restriction endonuclease. What does the co part mean?
    (a) colon
    (b) coelom
    (c) coenzyme
    (d) coli

(d) coli

  1. Who was the first person to develop the DNA fingerprinting technique?
    (a) Boysen and Jensen
    (b) Edwards and Steptoe
    (c) Schleiden and Schwann
    (d) Jeffreys, Wilson and Thien

(d) Jeffreys, Wilson and Thien

  1. What does a bioreactor refer to?
    (a) fermentation tank
    (b) organisms reacting to a stimulus
    (c) tank for biochemical reactions
    (d) nuclear reactor for biological studies

(a) fermentation tank

  1. Biotechnology includes which of the following part(s)?
    (1) in vitro fertilisation
    (2) synthesis of a gene
    (3) correcting a defective gene
    (4) developing a DNA vaccine
    (a) (1) and (2)
    (b) (2) and (3)
    (c) (3) and (4)
    (d) (1), (2), (3) and (4)

(d) (1), (2), (3) and (4)

  1. In recombinant DNA technology, which of the following is/are used?
    (1) agarose gel
    (2) ethidium bromide
    (3) plasmid vector
    (4) restriction endonuclease
    (a) (1) and (2)
    (b) (2) and (3)
    (c) (3) and (4)
    (d) (1), (2), (3) and (4)

(d) (1), (2), (3) and (4)

  1. The molecular probes that are used for the identification of a recombinant clone containing the desired DNA insert are?
    (1) denatured double-stranded DNA probes
    (2) double-stranded RNA probes
    (3) protein probes
    (4) single-stranded DNA probes.
    (a) (1) and (2)
    (b) (2) and (3)
    (c) (1) and (4)
    (d) (1), (2), (3) and (4)

(c) (1) and (4)

  1. What is the reason for the rising of dough?
    (a) multiplication of yeast
    (b) production of CO2
    (c) emulsification
    (d) hydrolysis of wheat flour starch into sugars

(b) production of CO2

  1. Which enzyme catalyzes the removal of nucleotides from the ends of DNA?
    (a) endonuclease
    (b) exonuclease
    (c) DNA ligase
    (d) Hind II

(b) exonuclease

  1. What is the transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another through the use of a vector-like virus termed as?
    (a) transduction
    (b) conjugation
    (c) transformation
    (d) translation

(a) transduction

  1. In the context of observing DNA separated by agarose gel electrophoresis, which of the given statements is correct?
    (a) DNA can be seen in visible light
    (b) DNA can be seen without staining in visible light
    (c) Ethidium bromide-stained DNA can be seen in visible light
    (d) Ethidium bromide-stained DNA can be seen under exposure to UV light

(d) Ethidium bromide-stained DNA can be seen under exposure to UV light

  1. What does ‘restriction’ in restriction enzyme refer to?
    (a) cleaving of the phosphodiester bond in DNA by the enzyme
    (b) cutting of DNA at a specific position only
    (c) prevention of the multiplication of bacteriophage in bacteria
    (d) All of the above

(b) cutting of DNA at a specific position only

  1. Which of the following is not necessary for the preparation of recombinant DNA molecules?
    (a) Restriction endonucleases
    (b) DNA ligase
    (c) DNA fragments
    (d) E. coli

(d) E. coli

  1. In agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA molecules are separated based on their
    (a) charge only
    (b) size only
    (c) charge to size ratio
    (d) All of these

(b) size only

  1. When a plasmid is used as a vector, what is its most important feature?
    (a) Origin of replication (Ori)
    (b) presence of a selectable marker
    (c) presence of sites for restriction endonuclease
    (d) its size

(a) Origin of replication (Ori)

  1. Which of the following enzymes is not used when separating DNA from bacteria?
    (a) Lysozyme
    (b) Ribonuclease
    (c) Deoxyribonuclease
    (d) Protease

(c) Deoxyribonuclease

  1. The PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) was popularized by which of the following?
    (a) Easy availability of DNA template
    (b) Availability of synthetic primers
    (c) Availability of cheap deoxyribonucleotides
    (d) Availability of ‘Thermostable’ DNA polymerase

(d) Availability of ‘Thermostable’ DNA polymerase

  1. Antibiotic resistance genes in a vector are often in the selection of?
    (a) competent cells
    (b) transformed cells
    (c) recombinant cells
    (d) None of these

(b) transformed cells

  1. The criterion for DNA fragment movement on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis is?
    (a) The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves
    (b) Positively charged fragments move to the farther end
    (c) Negatively charged fragments do not move
    (d) The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves

(a) The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves

  1. Who among the following won the Noble Prize for developing the PCR technique?
    (a) Herbert Boyer
    (b) Hargovind Khurana
    (c) Kary Mullis
    (d) Arthur Kornberg

(c) Kary Mullis

  1. Which of the following statements is not true about restriction enzymes?
    (a) It recognises a palindromic nucleotide sequence
    (b) it is an endonuclease
    (c) It is isolated from viruses
    (d) It produces the same kind of sticky ends in different DNA molecules

(c) It is isolated from viruses

  1. In a chemical reaction, DNA fragments generated by restriction endonucleases can be separated by?
    (a) Polymerase chain reaction
    (b) Electrophoresis
    (c) Restriction mapping
    (d) Centrifugation

(b) Electrophoresis

  1. Why do colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white in contrast to blue colonies of non-recombinant bacteria?
    (a) Insertional inactivate of alpha-galactosidase in nonrecombinant bacteria
    (b) Insertional inactivation of alpha-galactosidase in recombinant bacteria
    (c) Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in recombinant bacteria
    (d) Non-recombinant bacteria containing beta-galactosidase

(d) Non-recombinant bacteria containing beta-galactosidase

  1. The genes of interest in a genomic library can be selected using?
    (a) Restriction enzymes
    (b) Cloning vectors
    (c) DNA probes
    (d) Gene targets

(c) DNA probes

  1. Why is chilled ethanol added during the process of isolation of DNA?
    (a) Remove proteins such as histones
    (b) Precipitate DNA
    (c) Break open the cell to release DNA
    (d) Facilitate action of restriction enzymes

(b) Precipitate DNA

  1. What is not used in chromosomal DNA analysis by the Southern hybridization technique?
    (a) Electrophoresis
    (b) Blotting
    (c) Autoradiography
    (d) PCR

(d) PCR

  1. What are the characteristics of plant clonal propagation in vitro?
    (a) PCR and RAPD
    (b) Northern blotting
    (c) Electrophoresis and HPLC
    (d) Microscopy

(a) PCR and RAPD

  1. What vector can only clone small DNA fragments?
    (a) Bacterial artificial chromosome
    (b) Yeast artificial chromosome
    (c) Plasmid
    (d) Cosmid

(c) Plasmid

  1. The most commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing are?
    (a) T-DNA
    (b) BAC and YAC
    (c) Expression Vectors
    (d) kT/A Cloning Vectors

(b) BAC and YAC

  1. The heat shock method’s purpose in bacterial transformation is to facilitate?
    (a) Binding of DNA to the cell wall
    (b) Uptake of DNA through membrane transport proteins
    (c) Uptake of DNA through transient pores in the bacterial cell wall
    (d) Expression of antibiotic resistance gene

(c) Uptake of DNA through transient pores in the bacterial cell wall

  1. What role does DNA ligase play in the construction of a recombinant DNA molecule?
    (a) formation of a phosphodiester bond between two DNA fragments
    (b) formation of hydrogen bonds between sticky ends of DNA fragments
    (c) ligation of all purine and pyrimidine bases
    (d) None of the above

(a) formation of a phosphodiester bond between two DNA fragments

  1. A restriction endonuclease cannot be produced by which of the following?
    (a) Haemophilus influenzae
    (b) Escherichia coli
    (c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
    (d) Bacillus amyloli

(c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

  1. In a PCR reaction, which of the following steps is catalyzed by Taq polymerase?
    (a) Denaturation of template DNA
    (b) Annealing of primers to template DNA
    (c) Extension of primer end on the template DNA
    (d) All of the above

(c) Extension of primer end on the template DNA

  1. Using a human gene, recombinant DNA was used to transform a bacterial cell. However, the transformed cells were unable to produce the desired protein. What could the reason be?
    (a) human gene may have intron which bacteria cannot process
    (b) amino acid codons for humans and bacteria are different
    (c) human protein is formed but degraded by bacteria
    (d) All of the above

(a) human gene may have intron which bacteria cannot process

  1. If one were to produce large amounts of a recombinant protein, which of the following would produce the best yield?
    (a) Laboratory flask of the largest capacity
    (b) A stirred-tank bioreactor without in-lets
    (c) A continuous culture system
    (d) Any of the above

(c) A continuous culture system

  1. With the discovery of what did the cutting of DNA at specific locations become possible?
    (a) Probes
    (b) Selectable markers
    (c) Ligases
    (d) Restriction enzymes

(d) Restriction enzymes

  1. What is the name of the DNA molecule to which the gene of interest is integrated for cloning?
    (a) Vector
    (b) Template
    (c) Carrier
    (d) Transformer

(a) Vector

  1. Among the following, which is not a feature of plasmids?
    (a) Independent replication
    (b) Circular structure
    (c) Transferable
    (d) Single-stranded

(d) Single-stranded

  1. What is a gene whose expression helps to identify a transformed cell?
    (a) Vector
    (b) Plasmid
    (c) Structural gene
    (d) Selectable marker

(d) Selectable marker


Goodluck Medicoholics! Until next time.

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