Evolution: NEET MCQ Questions [100+ Solved]

Here you will find NEET MCQ questions on the Class 12 Biology Chapter “Evolution” based on the NCERT textbook. Solve the below free NEET mock test for a better understanding of the various topics. 100+ important MCQs (multiple choice questions) are given in this NEET question bank.

Evolution is the seventh chapter in the unit “Genetics and Evolution” of class XII or class 12th Biology NCERT. Do note that NEET (which is conducted by NTA) is based on NCERT books so they are a must have. You can also download the PDF of NCERT textbooks.

Important Questions For NEET:

You can also answer the below NEET quiz in a sheet of paper. Once you’re done with the NEET online test series, cross verify and calculate your score and judge your performance based on the scored marks. To calculate your score, multiply 4 with the number of correct attempts and then subtract that with the number of incorrect or wrong attempts.

I hope this will help you practice better for the NEET exam! All the best!

  1. Alternative forms of a gene are called
    (a) loci
    (b) multiples
    (c) Chromosomes
    (d) Alleles

(d) Alleles

  1. Heredity or inheritance of specific traits became clearer due to
    (a) Lamarck’s theory
    (b) Mendel worked on garden peas
    (c) Darwinism
    (d) Neo-Darwinism

(b) Mendel worked on garden peas

  1. Which of the following sentences is true about the evolutionary process?
    (a) There is no real progress in the idea of evolution
    (b) humans are unique, a totally new type of organism
    (c) progress is nature’s religion
    (d) Evolution of life forms was rapid in the beginning ages

(a) There is no real progress in the idea of evolution.

  1. Microevolution takes place due to
    (a) somatogenic variation
    (b) blastogenic variation
    (c) continuous variation
    (d) Successive variation

(b) blastogenic variation

  1. The difference between Homo sapiens and the Homo erectus was
    (a) Homo sapiens originated in Africa while Homo erectus was in Asia
    (b) Homo erectus were much smaller in size than homo sapiens
    (c) Homo erectus stayed in Africa while Homo sapiens did not
    (d) The size of the brain of Homo eructus was smaller than homo sapiens

(d) The size of the brain of Homo eructus was smaller than homo sapiens

  1. By studying analogous structures we look for
    (a) similarities in appearance and function but different in structure
    (b) similarities in appearance but differences in functions
    (c) Similarities in organ structure
    (d) Similarities in the cell make-up

(a) similarities in appearance and function but different in structure.

  1. Who was a predecessor of Darwin and developed the theory of acquired characteristics?
    (a) Weismann
    (b) Mendel
    (c) Malthus
    (d) Lamarck

(d) Lamarck

  1. Which of these is not a living fossil?
    (a) Archaeopteryx
    (b) Duck-billed platypus
    (c) Lungfish
    (d) Frog

(a) Archaeopteryx

  1. Which of the following are not examples of analogous structures?
    (a) Wings of bat and butterfly.
    (b) Wings of bat and forelimb of cattle.
    (c) Thorn and spine.
    (d) Tendril of Lathyrus and tendril of Gloriosa

(b) Wings of bat and forelimb of cattle

  1. The scientist who cut off the tails of mice of successive generations to prove Lamarck’s theory was wrong was
    (a) Weismann
    (b) Haeckel
    (c) Darwin
    (d) Wallace

(a) Weismann

  1. Human being belongs to the species of
    (a) Homo erectus
    (b) Homo habilis
    (c) Homo sapiens
    (d) Hominidae

(c) Homo sapiens

  1. Links between organisms that show branching patterns of evolutionary relationships are shown by
    (a) living fossils
    (b) comparative embryology
    (c) phylogenetic trees
    (d) two fossil layers

(c) phylogenetic trees

  1. Speciation is the evolutionary process by which
    (a) a new gene pool is formed
    (b) evolutionary paths of species converge
    (c) hybrid species formed
    (d) Shows up differences in physical traits

(a) a new gene pool is formed

  1. Evidences of evolutionary relationships is found in
    (a) atmosphere
    (b) fossils
    (c) ocean beds
    (d) rocks

(b) fossils

  1. Which of the following is not a source of variation in a population?
    (a) Inherited genetic differences
    (b) Differences due to health
    (c) Differences due to age
    (d) None of the above

(d) None of the above.

  1. Which of the following examples of variation is not important from an evolutionary standpoint?
    (a) Genetic differences between individual organisms comprising the population
    (b) Inherited differences between individual organisms comprising the population
    (c) Differences due to diet, health, age or accident that do not affect an individual’s ability to survive and reproduce
    (d) a and b

(c) Differences due to diet, health, age or accident that do not affect an individual’s ability to survive and reproduce

  1. Why is genetic variation important from an evolutionary standpoint?
    (a) If all organisms were the same, the entire population would be vulnerable to particular pathogens, like viruses
    (b) All evolutionary adaptations (e.g. the origin of forelimbs) are the result of the gradual build-up of genetic differences between organisms over geologic time
    (c) Evolution (at the population level) refers to changes in the frequencies of genes in the population over time
    (d) All of the above

(d) All of the above

  1. Which of the following is an example of genetic variation?
    (a) Two children have different eye colours
    (b) One person is older than another
    (c) One person has a scar, but her friend does not
    (d) Tod eats meat, but his brother Rod is a vegetarian

(a) Two children have different eye colours

  1. Which of the following is an example of environmental variation?
    (a) Apu is a tongue roller, but his brother Sanjay is not
    (b) Marge dyes her hair blue
    (c) Homer inherited baldness from his father’s side of the family
    (d) Patti and Selma have hanging ear lobes

(b) Marge dyes her hair blue

  1. What’s the difference between natural selection and sexual selection?
    (a) Sexual selection occurs during sex
    (b) Natural selection is a type of sexual selection
    (c) Sexual selection is a type of natural selection
    (d) Sexual selection occurs within demes, natural selection does not

(c) Sexual selection is a type of natural selection

  1. What’s the difference between genetic drift and change due to natural selection?
    (a) Genetic drift does not require the presence of variation
    (b) Genetic drift does not involve competition between members of a species
    (c) Genetic drift never occurs in nature, natural selection does
    (d) There is no difference

(b) Genetic drift does not involve competition between members of a species

  1. According to our reading, how did George Cuvier account for extinctions in nature?
    (a) Extinctions never occur – there are unexplored parts of the globe where organisms that appear to have gone extinct may still live
    (b) Extinctions occur when the slow adaptation of organisms over time to their environment is not quick enough to help them respond to changing conditions
    (c) Extinctions occur at random, they do not reflect God’s will
    (d) Extinctions are due to catastrophic events

(d) Extinctions are due to catastrophic events

  1. Why, according to our reading, did Darwin take so long to publish the Origin of Species?
    (a) Darwin wanted to share his theory as quickly as possible once he returned from his voyage on the Beagle
    (b) It took twenty years for Darwin to develop a theory
    (c) Darwin suffered from several illnesses
    (d) Darwin was concerned about the reaction of others to the implications of his theory

(d) Darwin was concerned about the reaction of others to the implications of his theory

  1. In which of the following ways is natural selection not analogous to artificial selection?
    (a) With natural selection “picking” is due to the fit of an organism with its environment; whereas in artificial selection, the breeder “picks” which organisms will breed
    (b) Natural selection depends upon the presence of variation, artificial selection does not
    (c) Natural selection occurs within populations, artificial selection does not
    (d) There is a limit to how much change can be brought about by natural selection, no such limit exists for artificial selection

(a) With natural selection “picking” is due to the fit of an organism with its environment; whereas in artificial selection, the breeder “picks” which organisms will breed

  1. Why is the advent of reproductive isolation important from an evolutionary standpoint?
    (a) When the organisms comprising two populations of a species can no longer interbreed, the flow of genetic material between them stops
    (b) It is not important from an evolutionary standpoint
    (c) Reproductive isolation increases the mutation rate
    (d) Reproductive isolation may slow reproduction

(a) When the organisms comprising two populations of a species can no longer interbreed, the flow of genetic material between them stops

  1. If the theory of natural selection is the survival of the fitness, and the fittest are identified as those who survive, why isn’t it regarded as a tautology (a statement that is true only because of the meaning of the terms)?
    (a) The effect of traits on the fitness of an organism can be assessed independently of whether the organism indeed survives
    (b) It is regarded as a tautology – the question is based on a false assumption
    (c) There may be some statements in science that are useful even if they are not falsifiable or refutable in principle
    (d) a and c

  1. The variation natural selection operates on is due to random mutations. What does this imply about natural selection?
    (a) Natural selection is also a random process
    (b) Natural selection is nevertheless a directed process – the likelihood one variant will be favoured in a given environment over another is predictable, even if the origin is not
    (c) There is no possibility God could be involved in this process
    (d) a, b and c

(b) Natural selection is nevertheless a directed process – the likelihood one variant will be favoured in a given environment over another is predictable, even if the origin is not

  1. How was Mendel’s work ultimately reconciled with Darwin’s theory of natural selection during the evolutionary synthesis in the 1930s and 1940s?
    (a) Scientists recognized that once one thinks about species as populations, rather than individuals, there is no incompatibility between them
    (b) Mendel’s theory was replaced by the mutation theory
    (c) It was recognized much of the variation we observe in nature is due to recombination, rather than mutation
    (d) a and c

(d) a and c

  1. Which of the following is the evidence for Darwin’s theory of common descent?
    (a) There are patterns in the fossil record that suggest other species have diverged from a single ancestor species
    (b) There are biogeographic patterns in the distribution of species, for instance, distinct bird species
    on an island tend to resemble one another, suggesting a common ancestor
    (c) There are common stages in the early embryological development of organisms representing several distinct vertebrate groups
    (d) All of above

(d) All of above

  1. What is the relationship between the wing of a bird and the wing of a bat?
    (a) They are homologous because they represent modified forms of a trait present in a common ancestor (forelimbs)
    (b) They are analogous because while each carries out the same function (flight), this trait has arisen independently as a result of convergence (i.e. the common ancestor of both did not have a forelimb that allowed it to fly)
    (c) a and b
    (d) They represent derived homologies

(c) a and b

  1. Which of the following is not an example of a macroevolutionary process?
    (a) One lion species splits to form two lion species over geological time
    (b) The same trait evolves independently in two different taxa (e.g. wings in birds and insects)
    (c) As a result of their activities, humans drive Dodos (a bird species) extinct
    (d) Over a short period, the frequency of a single gene declines from 10 to 8%

(d) Over a short period, the frequency of a single gene declines from 10 to 8%

  1. Which of the following is an example of an ancestral homology?
    (a) Almost all modern reptiles, birds and mammals have forelimbs, a trait they also share with contemporary amphibians
    (b) The first birds and all their descendant species have feathers, a trait that is unknown in any other group
    (c) Humans and many insect species have eyes
    (d) All of the above

(a) Almost all modern reptiles, birds and mammals have forelimbs, a trait they also share with contemporary amphibians

  1. Which of the following is not an example of microevolutionary change?
    (a) The dark form of many moth species has increased in areas darkened by pollution
    (b) Penicillin resistant forms of bacteria have arisen since the introduction of antibiotics
    (c) The proportion of left and right bending moths in cichlid fish remains roughly 50:50
    (d) The last American eagle dies off, leading to the extinction of the species

(d) The last American eagle dies off, leading to the extinction of the species

  1. Which of the following are difficult to explain in terms of natural selection?
    (a) Male peacocks evolve tail feathers that would appear to make them more rather than less vulnerable to predators
    (b) Male deer evolve antlers that are not used to defend themselves against predators
    (c) A bird issues a warning cry that puts it at greater risk of being noticed by a predator
    (d) Some traits appear to have no adaptive value

(d) Some traits appear to have no adaptive value

  1. Which of the following is not an example of a monophyletic taxon?
    (a) The first fish species and every living organism that looks like a fish
    (b) The first mammal species and all its descendants
    (c) The first bird species and all its descendants
    (d) All of the above

(a) The first fish species and every living organism that looks like a fish

  1. Which of the following are kingdoms?
    (a) Monera
    (b) Protista
    (c) Animalia
    (d) All of the above

(d) All of the above

  1. Which of the following must increase over geological time according to evolutionary biologists?
    (a) Size
    (b) Complexity
    (c) Speed of evolutionary processes such as mutation
    (d) All of the above

(d) All of the above

  1. Why is similarity misleading when it comes to inferring evolutionary relationships?
    (a) Organisms that look alike may be very distantly related to one another
    (b) Similarities between two species may be due to common descent, without indicating how closely the two are related to one another
    (c) A and B only
    (d) The presence of a shared derived character state is often misleading when it comes to inferring relationships between species

(c) A and B only

  1. Which of the following are the most distantly related to one another?
    (a) Sunfish and dolphins
    (b) Tree frogs and snakes
    (c) Vampire bats and birds
    (d) Bears and whales

(a) Sunfish and dolphins

  1. How does an evolutionary biologist explain why a species of birds have evolved a larger beak size?
    (a) Large beak size occurred as a result of a mutation in each member of the population
    (b) The ancestors of this bird species encountered a tree with larger than average sized seeds. They needed to develop larger beaks to eat the larger seeds, and over time, they adapted to meet this need
    (c) Some members of the ancestral population had larger beaks than others. If larger beak size was advantageous, they would be more likely to survive and reproduce. As such, large beaked birds increased in frequency relative to small beaked birds
    (d) The ancestors of this bird species encountered a tree with larger than average sized seeds. They discovered that by stretching their beaks, the beaks would get longer, and this increase was passed on to their offspring. Over time, the bird’s beaks became larger

(c) Some members of the ancestral population had larger beaks than others. If larger beak size was advantageous, they would be more likely to survive and reproduce. As such, large beaked birds increased in frequency relative to small beaked birds

  1. How might an evolutionary biologist explain why a species of salamander becomes blind after colonizing a cave?
    (a) It is possible that in the cave there is a source of pollution that increases the mutation rate for a gene that makes salamanders blin(d) Over time, due to exposure to this chemical, the members of the population lose their sight
    (b) Members of the ancestral population that colonized the cave differed in their ability to see. If maintaining the ability to see in the cave was a waste of energy, blind salamanders might actually have more offspring than those who could see
    (c) There is no way to explain this in terms of natural selection
    (d) The members of this salamander species no longer needed to use their eyes. Over time, due to lack of use, they lost the ability to see

(b) Members of the ancestral population that colonized the cave differed in their ability to see. If maintaining the ability to see in the cave was a waste of energy, blind salamanders might actually have more offspring than those who could see

  1. Which of the following is the most fit in an evolutionary sense?
    (a) A lion who is successful at capturing prey but has no cubs
    (b) A lion who has many cubs, eight of which live to adulthood
    (c) A lion who overcomes a disease and lives to have three cubs.
    (d) A lion who cares for his cubs, two of who live to adulthood

(b) A lion who has many cubs, eight of which live to adulthood

  1. How is extinction represented in a tree diagram?
    (a) A branch splits.
    (b) A branch ends.
    (c) A branch shifts along the X-axis
    (d) A branch shifts along the Y-axis

(b) A branch ends

  1. A biologist is trying to infer how five closely related species of snakes are related to one another. She notices that some of the snakes have forked tongues and others do not. Which of the following would help her distinguish the ancestral state?
    (a) She looks among snake fossils for evidence that being forked is a characteristic of the ancestor of this group, but determines no such fossils exist
    (b) She locates a specimen of a more distantly related snake to see if it has a forked tongue
    (c) She looks at a representative mammal species to see if it has a forked tongue
    (d) She flips a coin

(b) She locates a specimen of a more distantly related snake to see if it has a forked tongue

  1. The surface temperature of the sun is
    (a) 6000 degree celsius
    (b) 9000 degree celsius
    (c) 1000 degree celsius
    (d) 10,000 degree celsius

(a) 6000 degree celsius

  1. The earth like other planets formed from
    (a) aggregates of uranium
    (b) cloud of gas and dust
    (c) division of pre-existing planets
    (d) collisions of meteorites

(b) cloud of gas and dust

  1. The experiment to show the production of mice in 21 days from a dirty shirt placed in contact with kernels of wheat was carried out by
    (a) Francesco Redi
    (b) Jean Baptiste Van Helmont
    (c) Aristotle
    (d) Louis Pasteur

(b) Jean Baptiste Van Helmont

  1. The first formed organism (ribo organism) used only _ for catalyzing reactions
    (a) DNA
    (b) amino acids
    (c) fatty acids
    (d) RNA

(d) RNA

  1. Anaerobic photosynthetic bacteria appeared on the earth about
    (a) 500 million years ago
    (b) 1500 million years ago
    (c) 2500 million years ago
    (d) 3500 million years ago

(d) 3500 million years ago

  1. The sequence of origin of life may be considered as
    (a) Amino acid, Protein, Chlorophyll
    (b) Chlorophyll, Starch, Glycogen
    (c) Nucleic acid, Amino acid, Chlorophyll
    (d) Chlorophyll, Nucleic acid, Amino acid

(c) Nucleic acid Amino acid Chlorophyll

  1. The primitive cell-like colloidal particles capable of growth and division were
    (a) prokaryotes
    (b) coacervates
    (c) eobionts
    (d) chemoautotrophs

(c) eobionts

  1. The stage for the evolution of autotrophs was set with the evolution of
    (a) RNA
    (b) DNA
    (c) ozone
    (d) chlorophyll

(d) chlorophyll

  1. The first organism to be found on a bare rock is a
    (a) moss
    (b) alga
    (c) lichen
    (d) fern

(c) lichen

  1. The doctrine of evolution is concerned with
    (a) gradual changes
    (b) abiogenesis
    (c) biogenesis
    (d) none of the above

(c) biogenesis

  1. The era called the ‘age of prokaryotic microbes’ is
    (a) archaeozoic
    (b) precambrian
    (c) phanerozoic
    (d) proterozoic

(a) archaeozoic

  1. The determine which molecules might have formed spontaneously on the early earth, Stanley Miller used an apparatus with an atmosphere containing
    (a) oxygen, hydrogen and nitrogen
    (b) oxygen, hydrogen, ammonia and water vapour
    (c) oxygen, hydrogen and methane
    (d) hydrogen, ammonia, methane and water vapour

(d) hydrogen, ammonia, methane and water vapour

  1. The utilization of elements and compounds in nature generation theory because
    (a) life cycles
    (b) cyclic pathway
    (c) material cycles
    (d) recycling

(c) material cycles

  1. What is ethnobotany?
    (a) Relationship between primitive plants and people
    (b) Study to soil
    (c) Cultivation of flower yielding plants
    (d) Use of plants and their parts

(a) Relationship between primitive plants and people

  1. The first photoautotroph organisms were
    (a) bryophytes
    (b) algae
    (c) cyanobacteria
    (d) bacteria

(d) bacteria

  1. Who performed this famous experiment to prove the origin of life?
    (a) Oparin and Haldane
    (b) Spallanzani and Pasteur
    (c) Urey and Miller
    (d) Fox and Pasteur

(c) Urey and Miller

  1. How much temperature was used for the gases to react?
    (a) 10 degree celsius
    (b) 130 degree celsius
    (c) 1000 degree celsius
    (d) 50 degree celsius

(b) 130 degree celsius

  1. Coacervates are
    (a) colloidal droplets
    (b) contain nucleoprotein
    (c) a and b
    (d) protobiont

(c) a and b

  1. The earliest organisms were
    (a) heterotrophic and anaerobic
    (b) autotrophic and anaerobic
    (c) heterotrophic and aerobic
    (d) autotrophic and aerobic

(a) heterotrophic and anaerobic

  1. Which one of the following is present today but was absent about 3.5 billion years ago?
    (a) Oxygen
    (b) Nitrogen
    (c) Hydrogen
    (d) Methane

(a) Oxygen

  1. Coacervates were experimentally produced by
    (a) Sydney Fox and Oparin
    (b) Fischer and Huxley
    (c) Jacob and Monod
    (d) Urey and Miller

(d) Urey and Miller

  1. Urey and Miller in their experiment used a mixture of gases corresponding to primitive earth. These were
    (a) C3, NH3, H2, CO2
    (b) O2, NH3, CH4, H2
    (c) NH3, CH4, H2O, CO2
    (d) CH4, NH3, H2, H2O

(d) CH4, NH3, H2, H2O

  1. According to abiogenesis life originate from
    (a) non-living matter
    (b) pre-existing life
    (c) chemicals
    (d) extra-terrestrial matter

(a) non-living matter

  1. Mega–evolution is
    (a) Changes in the gene pool
    (b) evolution due to mutations
    (c) origin of a new biological group
    (d) the evolution that takes centuries

(c) origin of a new biological group

  1. Evolutionary convergence is characterised by
    (a) development of dissimilar characteristics in closely related groups
    (b) development of a common set of characteristics in the groups of different ancestry
    (c) development of characteristics by random mating
    (d) replacement of common characteristics in different groups

(d) replacement of common characteristics in different groups

  1. Parallelism is
    (a) adaptive divergence
    (b) adaptive convergence
    (c) adaptive convergence of far off species
    (d) adaptive convergence of closely related groups.

(d) adaptive convergence of closely related groups.

  1. Mesozoic era is associated with the mass extinction of
    (a) flowering plants
    (b) trilobites
    (c) Dodo
    (d) dinosaurs

(d) dinosaurs

  1. Serial homology is exhibited by
    (a) Organs of same individual occupying different levels of the body
    (b) Organs of different organisms with the same function
    (c) appendages of various parts of the prawn body
    (d) both (a) and (c)

(d) both (a) and (c)

  1. Vermiform appendix in man, nictitating membrane and wisdom teeth are
    (a) homologous organs
    (b) analogous organs
    (c) vestigial organs
    (d) none of the above

(c) vestigial organs

  1. Which one of the following terms would most correctly describe the relationship between the flight organs of animals like locusts, bats, swallow, and flying fish?
    (a) Atavism
    (b) Analogous
    (c) Homologous
    (d) Vestigial

(b) Analogous

  1. Appearance of facial hair in some people is an example of
    (a) mongolism
    (b) analogous organs
    (c) atavism
    (d) all above

(c) atavism

  1. A living connecting link which provides evidence for organic evolution is
    (a) Archeopteryx between reptiles and mammals
    (b) lungfish between pisces and reptiles
    (c) duck-billed platypus between reptiles and mammals
    (d) Sphenodon between reptiles and birds

(c) duck-billed platypus between reptiles and mammals

  1. Von Baer supports the theory of evolution based on
    (a) embryological character
    (b) germs layers
    (c) somatic variations
    (d) genetic variations

(a) embryological character

  1. Which of the following bird will be called most successfully evolved?
    (a) Lays 2 eggs, 2 hatch and 2 reproduce
    (b) Lays 9 eggs, 9 hatch and 3 reproduce
    (c) Lays 5 eggs, 5 hatch and 5 reproduce
    (d) Lays 10 eggs, 5 hatch and 4 reproduce

(c) Lays 5 eggs, 5 hatch and 5 reproduce

  1. Biogenetic law states that
    (a) ontogeny repeats phylogeny
    (b) phylogeny repeats ontogeny
    (c) no two living organisms are alike
    (d) the favourable acquired characters are inherited

(a) ontogeny repeats phylogeny

  1. A study of evolution has established the systematic positions in many animals. In some animals chordate characters are absent in the adult stage but present in the larval stage, for example, Herdmania has been included in
    (a) crustacea
    (b) protochordata
    (c) dermaptera
    (d) onychophora

(b) protochordata

  1. Many of the animals and plants found on islands are
    (a) endemic
    (b) exotic
    (c) sympatric
    (d) none of these

(a) endemic

  1. Haeckel’s theory of biogenetic Law means that
    (a) all organisms start as an egg
    (b) life history of an organism reflects its evolutionary history
    (c) nonliving matter from life
    (d) progeny resembles parents

(b) life history of an organism reflects its evolutionary history

  1. The best way of dating fossils recent origin is by
    (a) radiocarbon method
    (b) uranium-lead method
    (c) potassium-argon method
    (d) a combination of all these

(d) a combination of all these

  1. The age of the rock is calculated based on
    (a) types of fossils present
    (b) number of strata present
    (c) amount of uranium present
    (d) none above

(c) amount of uranium present

  1. It is not a true fossil
    (a) Placoderm
    (b) Limulus
    (c) Archeopteryx
    (d) Therapsid

(b) Limulus

  1. All mammals, whales, dolphins, bats, monkeys and horses have some common traits, but they also show conspicuous differences. This is due to the phenomenon of
    (a) normalisation
    (b) genetic drift
    (c) convergence
    (d) divergence

(d) divergence

  1. These are some examples of vestigial structures in man
    (a) wisdom tooth vermiform appendix, hair
    (b) wisdom tooth, vermiform appendix, coccyx
    (c) wisdom tooth, head, nails
    (d) none of these

(b) wisdom tooth, vermiform appendix, coccyx

  1. Precipitation test gives evidence from
    (a) comparative embryology
    (b) comparative anatomy
    (c) comparative serology
    (d) none above

(c) comparative serology

  1. In external appearance, the krait and lycodon are indistinguishable. This is an example of
    (a) analogy
    (b) imitation
    (c) mimicry
    (d) homology

(c) mimicry

  1. Postanal tail can be traced in
    (a) cobra
    (b) earthworm
    (c) scorpion
    (d) centipede

(a) cobra

  1. The Jurassic period belongs to which era?
    (a) proterozoic
    (b) archaeozoic
    (c) mesozoic
    (d) cenozoic

(c) mesozoic

  1. Which of the following cannot determine phylogenetic relationships?
    (a) Physiology
    (b) Morphology
    (c) Biogeography
    (d) Embryology

(b) Morphology

  1. Mark the correct set
    Column I Column II
    I. Slow evolution A. Non-progressive
    II. Environment is responsible for evolution B. Aristotle
    III. Homologous C. Birdwing and butterfly wing
    IV. Analogous organ D. Wing of bird and hose limb
    (a) I – A, II – B, III – D, IV – C
    (b) I – B, II – A, III – D, IV – C
    (c) I – B, II – A, III – C, IV – D
    (d) I – B, II – C, III – D, IV – A

(a) I – A, II – B, III – D, IV – C

  1. The mesozoic era is called the golden period of
    (a) birds
    (b) amphibians
    (c) reptiles
    (d) pisces

(c) reptiles

  1. Which of the following leads to evolution?
    (a) Separation of species
    (b) Differentiation of species
    (c) Loss of few advanced characters
    (d) Differentiation and adaption of species as unique entities

(d) Differentiation and adaption of species as unique entities

  1. Evolution and natural selection is demonstrated by
    (a) DDT resistance in mosquito
    (b) sickle cell anaemia in pygmies
    (c) industrial melanism
    (d) all above

(d) all above

  1. An important piece of evidence in favour of organic evolution is the occurrence of
    (a) homologous and analogous organs
    (b) homologous and vestigial organs
    (c) analogous and vestigial organs
    (d) homologous organs only

(b) homologous and vestigial organs

  1. Potato and sweet potato
    (a) have edible parts which are homologous organs
    (b) have edible parts which are analogous organs
    (c) have been introduced in India from the same place
    (d) None of the above

(b) have edible parts which are analogous organs

  1. Which one is not a vestigial organ in a man?
    (a) Wisdom teeth
    (b) Muscles of external ear-pinna
    (c) Fossa ovalis
    (d) Ileum

(d) Ileum

  1. The tracking of the evolutionary history of organisms is
    (a) ontogeny
    (b) phylogeny
    (c) analogy
    (d) homology

(b) phylogeny

  1. An old view about evolution states that the organisms were created by a super organism in the same condition as they exist now. This theory is called
    (a) theory of special creation
    (b) theory of natural selection
    (c) Lamarck’s theory of evolution
    (d) theory of spontaneous generation

(a) theory of special creation

  1. Who gave the evolutionary concept of determinants?
    (a) Dobzhansky
    (b) Wright
    (c) Weismann
    (d) Lamarck

(b) Wright

  1. Darwin’s theory of natural selection is objected because it
    (a) stresses upon slow and small variations
    (b) explains the adaption of certain inherited characters
    (c) stresses on interspecific competition
    (d) explains that natural calamities take a heavy annual toll on lives

(b) explains the adaption of certain inherited characters

  1. Given: 1 = natural selection; 2 = variations and their inheritance; 3 = survival of the fittest; 4 = struggle for existence. According to Darwinism, which of the following represents the correct sequence of events in the origin of new species?
    (a) 1, 2, 3, 4
    (b) 2, 3, 1, 4
    (c) 3, 4, 1, 2
    (d) 4, 2, 3, 1

(c) 3, 4, 1, 2

  1. The theory of Lamarck was based on
    (a) adaptive collisions
    (b) adaptive radiation
    (c) adaptive modifications
    (d) none of these

(b) adaptive radiation

  1. Darwin’s natural selection is based on
    (a) variations
    (b) prodigality, struggle for existence, survival of fittest
    (c) law of use and disuse
    (d) law of inheritance of acquired characters

(a) variations

  1. Industrial melanism is an example of
    (a) natural selection
    (b) mutation
    (c) adaptive convergence
    (d) artificial selection

(c) adaptive convergence

  1. Which statement is correct?
    (a) Lamarck theory – Struggle for existence
    (b) Darwin theory – Use and disuse of an organ
    (c) Biogenetic law – Recapitulation theory
    (d) Lamarck theory – Theory of continuity of germplasm

(c) Biogenetic law – Recapitulation theory

  1. Match the correct set.
    Column I Column II
    I. Modified form of Lamarckism A. G.L. Stebbins (1950)
    II. Variation and evolution in plants B. Neo- Lamarckism
    III. Germinal selection theory C. Etienne Geoffroy
    IV. Supporter of Lamarck’s theory D. August Weismann
    (a) I – A, II – B, III – C, IV – D
    (b) I – D, II – B, III – C, IV – A
    (c) I – A, II – B, III – D, IV – C
    (d) I – D, II – A, III – C, IV – B

(c) I – A, II – B, III – D, IV – C

  1. The cosmozoic theory was given by
    (a) Darwin
    (b) Richter
    (c) Aristotle
    (d) Von Baer

(c) Aristotle

  1. Which one of the following phenomena supports Darwin’s concept of natural selection in organic evolution?
    (a) Development of transgenic animals
    (b) Production of ‘Dolly’ the sheep by clothing
    (c) Prevalence of pesticide-resistant insects
    (d) Development of organs from ‘stem cells’ for organ transplantation

(b) Production of ‘Dolly’ the sheep by clothing

  1. Retrogressive evolution is shown by
    (a) man
    (b) birds
    (c) tunicates
    (d) fish

(a) man

  1. Match the correct set
    Column I Column II
    I. Fossil A. 345-405 million years ago
    II. Devonian period B. Fossillium
    III. Cambrian period C. 425-500 million years ago
    IV. Ordovician period D. 500-600 million years ago
    (a) I – B, II – A, III – D, IV – C
    (b) I – A, II – B, III – C, IV – D
    (c) I – B, II – C, III – D, IV – A
    (d) I – B, II – D, III – C, IV – A

(a) I – B, II – A, III – D, IV – C

  1. In a population, a group of individuals of similar phenotypes are formed due to differential reproduction due to
    (a) genetic drift
    (b) natural selection
    (c) migration
    (d) selective hybridization

(a) genetic drift

  1. Phylogenetic evolution refers to
    (a) genetic relationship and evolutionary sequence
    (b) similar habitat
    (c) the natural affinity of genes
    (d) similar character

(c) the natural affinity of genes

  1. Genetic drift occurs when few individuals colonize, the phenomenon is
    (a) bottleneck effect
    (b) assortative mating
    (c) founder’s effect
    (d) random mating

(d) random mating

  1. Sympatric speciation arises due to
    (a) the non-overlapping population of the same area
    (b) geographical isolation
    (c) the overlapping population of the same area
    (d) the non-reproductive population of the same area

(d) the non-reproductive population of the same area

  1. Hardy – Weinberg equilibrium is known to be affected by gene flow, genetic drift, mutation, genetic recombination and
    (a) evolution
    (b) limiting factor
    (c) saltation
    (d) natural selection

(a) evolution

  1. Which does not apply to the Biological species concept?
    (a) hybridization
    (b) natural population
    (c) reproductive isolation
    (d) gene pool

(a) hybridization

  1. Mass extinction of the end of the mesozoic era was probably due to?
    (a) continental drift
    (b) the collision of earth with large meteorites
    (c) massive glaciations
    (d) change in earth’s orbit

(c) massive glaciations

  1. Apes share which blood groups with man
    (a) A, B, AB
    (b) A, B, O
    (c) AB, O
    (d) A and B only

(c) AB, O

  1. The present age of humans is known as
    (a) atomic age
    (b) iron age
    (c) bronze age
    (d) silver age

(d) silver age

  1. Who was the first civilized man?
    (a) Cro-magnon man
    (b) Neanderthal man
    (c) Java ape man
    (d) Peking man

(a) Cromagnon man

  1. Leakey and Leakey discovered the fossils of
    (a) apeman
    (b) erect man
    (c) Peking man
    (d) the toolmaker

(a) apeman

  1. The correct sequence of course of cultural evolution from Cromagnon to modern man is
    (a) Palaeolithic – Mesolithic – Neolithic – Bronze – Iron – Atomic
    (b) Mesolithic – Bronze – Neolithic – Iron – Atomic
    (c) Palaeolithic – Neolithic – Iron – Bonze – Atomic
    (d) None above

(a) Palaeolithic – Mesolithic – Neolithic – Bronze – Iron – Atomic

  1. Neanderthal man differs from modern man in
    (a) receding jaw
    (b) protruding jaw
    (c) could make good tools
    (d) none of the above

(a) receding jaw

  1. ‘Piltdown man’ is
    (a) Hemo habilis
    (b) Eoanthropus
    (c) Homo sapiens
    (d) Pithecanthropine

(d) Pithecanthropine

  1. The most recent in human evolution is
    (a) mesolithic
    (b) neolithic
    (c) upper palaeolithic
    (d) middle palaeolithic

(d) middle palaeolithic

  1. Which one of the following statements is correct?
    (a) Homo erectus is the ancestor of man
    (b) Fossils of Cromagnon has been found in Ethiopia
    (c) Australopithecus is the real ancestor of modern man
    (d) Neanderthal man is the direct ancestor of Homo sapience

(a) Homo erectus is the ancestor of man

  1. The evolution of genera ‘Homo’ occurred in
    (a) Pleistocene
    (b) Pliocene
    (c) Miocene
    (d) Oligocene

(b) Pliocene

  1. Closest primate to man is
    (a) gorilla
    (b) rhesus monkey
    (c) orangutan
    (d) lemur

(a) gorilla

  1. There are two opposing views about the origin of modern man, According to one view, Homo erectus in Asia were the ancestors of modern man. A study of variation of DNA however suggested the African origin of modern man. What kind of observation on DNA variation could suggest this?
    (a) Greater variation in Africa than in Asia
    (b) Variation only in Asia and no variation in Africa
    (c) Greater variation in Asia than in Africa
    (d) Similar variation in Africa and Asia

(c) Greater variation in Asia than in Africa

  1. The first man to use fire was
    (a) neanderthal man
    (b) Homo erectus
    (c) cro-magnon man
    (d) Australopithecus

(b) Homo erectus

  1. Human evolution actually started in
    (a) France
    (b) America
    (c) Central Asia
    (d) Africa

(d) Africa

  1. Peking man is known as
    (a) Australopithecus
    (b) Sinanthropus
    (c) Pithecanthropus
    (d) Homo sapiens

(b) Sinanthropus

  1. Which of the following is a correct match regarding cranial capacity and location of respective fossil.
    (a) Australopithecus – Africa (450 600 CC)
    (b) Java man – Germany (800 CC)
    (c) Neanderthal – Africa (500–600 CC)
    (d) Homo sapiens – Southeast Asia

(a) Australopithecus – Africa (450 600 CC)

  1. Which one of the following ancestors of man first time showed bipedal movement?
    (a) Australopithecus
    (b) Cro-magnon
    (c) Java apeman
    (d) Peking man

(a) Australopithecus

  1. One of the oldest, best preserved and most complete hominid fossil commonly known as ‘Lucy’ belongs to the genus.
    (a) Oreopithecus
    (b) Dryopithecus
    (c) Pithecanthropus
    (d) Australopithecus

(d) Australopithecus

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